8. Interchanging operators#
\(I \subseteq \mathbb{R}\) interval
\(Y\) set with accumulation point \(y_0\)
\(f: \ I \times Y \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\)
Let the pointwise limit
exists for \(\forall x \in I\), i.e. analogously \(\forall \varepsilon > 0\), \(\forall x \in I\), \(\exists \delta > 0\) so that \(|f(x,y) - g(x)| < \delta\) for \(\forall y \in U_{y_0, \delta}\).
8.1. Interchange limits - Moore-Osgood theorem#
Let \(x_0\) a limit point of \(I\). Suppose
for \(\forall y \in V_{y_0}\) (punctured neighborhood of \(y_0\)), \(\varphi(y) := \lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} f(x,y)\) exists. (Here \(y\) is taken as fixed. If \(y\) is taken as a parameter, these are common limits of function of one variable, for all the possible parameters \(y\); can it be interpreted as pointwise convergence as \(x \rightarrow x_0\) for all the points \(y \in V_{y_0}\)?)
\(f(x,y) \rightarrow g(x)\) as \(y \rightarrow y_0\) uniformly for \(x \in U_{x_0}\) (punctured)
Then
\(\lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} \varphi(y)\) exists and
\[\lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} \varphi(y) = \lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} g(x) = \lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (x_0, y_0)} f(x,y) \ .\]
Proof
Step 1. By 2. (see definition of uniform convergence), for \(\forall \varepsilon > 0\), \(\exists \delta_1 > 0\) s.t. \(| f(x,y) - g(x) | < \frac{\varepsilon}{3}\) for \(\forall y \in V_{y_0, \delta_1}\), \(\forall x \in U_{x_0}\). Take \(y_1, y_2 \in V_{y_0, \delta_1}\), then
As \(x \rightarrow x_0\), from 1.,
Thus, as \(\varphi(y)\) satisfies the Cauchy condition, the limit \(\lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} \varphi(y) =: L\) exists.
Step 2. Shrinking \(V_{y_0, \delta_1}\) to \(V_{y_0, \delta_2}\) so that \(| \varphi(y) - L | < \frac{\varepsilon}{3}\) for \(\forall y \in V_{y_0, \delta_2}\). From the definition of \(\varphi(y)\), then \(\exists \delta_x > 0\) s.t.
Thus
i.e. \(g(x) \rightarrow L\) as \(x \rightarrow x_0\).
Counter-example. \(f(x,y) = \frac{x^2}{x^2 + y^2}\) on \((x,y) \ne (0,0)\) for \(x_0 = y_0 = 0\). This function is not uniformly convergent as \(y \rightarrow y_0\).
…
Pointwise and uniform convergence
Pointwise. For \(\forall \varepsilon > 0\), \(\forall x \in X\), \(\exists \delta > 0\) s.t. \(| f(x,y) - g(x) | < \varepsilon\) for \(\forall y \in Y_{y_0, \delta}\). Here \(\delta( \varepsilon, x)\).
Uniform. For \(\forall \varepsilon > 0\), \(\exists \delta > 0\) s.t. \(| f(x,y) - g(x) | < \varepsilon\) for \(\forall y \in Y_{y_0, \delta}\), \(\forall x \in X\), . Here \(\delta( \varepsilon)\). This can be written in terms of \(\sup | f(x,y) - g(x) |\) as well, as it must hold for \(\forall x \in X\).
Cauchy criterion
Let \(I \subseteq \mathbb{R}\) be an interval containing a limit point \(x_0\), and let \(f: I \setminus \{x_0\} \to \mathbb{R}\).
The limit \(\lim_{x\to x_0} f(x)\) exists in \(\mathbb{R}\) if and only if for every \(\varepsilon > 0\), there exists a deleted neighborhood \(U = (x_0 - \delta, x_0 + \delta) \setminus \{x_0\}\) such that for all \(x_1, x_2 \in U\),
Proof.
Direction \((\Rightarrow)\): if the limit exists, the Cauchy condition holds. Assume \(\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = L\) exists. Fix \(\varepsilon > 0\). By definition of a functional limit, there exists \(\delta > 0\) such that for all \(x \in I\) with \(0 < \vert{}x - x_0\vert{} < \delta\):
Take any \(x_1, x_2 \in I\) such that \(0 < \vert{}x_1 - x_0\vert{} < \delta\) and \(0 < \vert{}x_2 - x_0\vert{} < \delta\). By the triangle inequality:
Substitution gives \(\vert{}f(x_1) - f(x_2)\vert{} < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} + \frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon\). Thus, the condition holds. \(\square\)
Direction \((\Leftarrow)\): if the Cauchy condition holds, then the limit exists.
…todo…
Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem
Every bounded sequence of real numbers has a convergence subsequence, i.e. let \(( x_n )_{x=1}^{+\infty}\) be a sequence in \(\mathbb{R}\). If \(\exists a, b \in \mathbb{R}\) s.t. \(a \le x_n \le b\), then \(( x_n )_{n=1}^{+\infty}\) contains a convergent subsequence \((x_{n_k})_{k=1}^{+\infty}\)
Proof. Take the original interval \(I_0 = [a,b]\), and split it with its midpoint \(c_0 = \frac{a+b}{2}\). (At least) one of the two sub-intervals contains infinitey many terms of the original sequence. Choose this sub-interval \(I_1\), and repeat the process. Select the sub-sequence with these rules: pick \(x_{n_1} \in I_1\); pick \(x_{n_2} \in I_2\) s.t. \(n_2 > n_1\) (always possible, as there’s a infinite number of terms); pick \(x_{n_3} \in I_3\) s.t. \(n_3 > n_2\);… The sequence of the left endpoints \(( a_k )\) is non-decreasing and bounded above by \(b\), so by monotone convergence theorem, then \(\lim_{k \rightarrow +\infty} a_k = L\), for some \(L \in \mathbb{R}\). The series of right endpoints satisfies \(b_k = a_k + \frac{b-a}{2^k}\) and thus \(\lim_{k \rightarrow +\infty} b_k = L\) as well. Thus, as \(a_k \le x_{n_k} \le b_k\), it follows (squeeze theorem) that \(\lim_{k \rightarrow +\infty} x_{n_k} = L\). \(\blacksquare\)
From \(\ < \ \) to \(\ \le \ \) in limits
Let \(f(x) < C\) for \(x \in U_{x_0}\). Then \(L := \lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} f(x) \le C\).
Proof. By contradiction, let’s assume \(L > C\). 1) Define \(\varepsilon := L - C > 0\); 2) apply the definition of limit. For \(\forall \varepsilon > 0\), \(\exists \delta > 0\) s.t. \(| f(x) - L | < \varepsilon\) for \(\forall y \in U_{x_0, \delta}\); 3) this implies \(L - \varepsilon < f(x) < L + \varepsilon\); 4) replacing \(\varepsilon = L - C\), it follows \(C < f(x) < - C\), and this contains a contradiction with the assumption of the theorem \(f(x) < C\). It follows that the premise \(L > C\) is false, and thus \(L \le C\). \(\blacksquare\)
8.2. Interchange limit and integral#
8.2.1. Riemann integral#
If
\([a,b]\) compact
\(f(\cdot, y)\) Riemann integrable on \([a,b]\) for each \(y\)
\(f(x,y) \rightarrow g(x)\) uniformly as \(y \rightarrow y_0\) uniformly for \(x \in [a,b]\)
Then
\(g\) is Riemann integrable and
\[\lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} \int_{x=a}^{b} f(x,y) \, dx = \int_{x=a}^{b} g(x) \, dx \ .\]
Proof
Integrability of \(g(x)\). Given \(\varepsilon > 0\), there exists a neighborhood of \(y_0\) so that
Since \(f(\cdot, y)\) is Riemann integrable, it’s possible to choose a partition \(P\) so that \(U(f(\cdot,y),P) - L(f(\cdot,y),P) < \frac{\varepsilon}{2}\), with
As \(\sup g = \sup ( f + g - f ) \le \sup f + \sup |f-g|\), \(\inf g = \inf ( f + g - f ) \le \inf f - \sup | f-g |\),
For Riemann crieterion, \(g\) is Riemann integrable. Then
and thus
Counter-example. \(f(x,y) = y^2 x ( 1 - x )^y\), for \(x \in [0,1]\), for \(y \rightarrow +\infty\).
Details
As \(y \rightarrow + \infty\), \(f(x,y) \rightarrow 0\) for all \(x \in [0,1]\), and thus \(\int_{0}^{1} \lim_{y \rightarrow +\infty} f(x,y) \, dx = 0\). On the other hand,
and thus \(\lim_{y \rightarrow +\infty} \int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) \, dx = 1\).
This occurs because \(f(x,y)\) doesn’t converge uniformly as \(y \rightarrow +\infty\). This can be easily proved as:
the function \(f(x,y)\) converges pointwise to \(0\) as \(y \rightarrow +\infty\)
but
\[\sup_{x \in [0,1]} | f(x,y) - 0 | = y^2 \left( 1 - \frac{1}{1+y} \right)^{y+1} \rightarrow +\infty \, \text{as $y \rightarrow + \infty$}\]
since
as \(\lim_{y \rightarrow +\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{1+y} \right)^{y+1} = e^{-1}\), it follows that \(\lim_{y \rightarrow +\infty} f(\overline{x}_2, y) = +\infty\). Thus \(\lim_{y \rightarrow + \infty} \sup_{x \in [0,1]} | f(x,y) - 0 | = +\infty\), and \(f(x,y)\) doesn’t converge uniformly to \(0\).
Riemann integrable function
with \(\xi_n \in [x_n, x_{n+1}]\) with \(x_0 = a\), \(x_N = b\).
Riemann criterion for integrability
8.2.2. Lebesgue integral#
…
Counter-example. \(f(x,y) = y \cdot 1_{\left(0,\frac{1}{y}\right)}(x)\) for \(x \in [0,1]\), for \(y \rightarrow +\infty\).
8.3. Interchange limit and derivative#
\(I\) open interval
\(f(\cdot,y)\) differentaible on \(I\) for \(\forall y \in V_{y_0}\), punctured
Suppose:
\(f(x_1,y)\) converges as \(y\rightarrow y_0\) for at least one point \(x_1 \in I\)
\(f_x(x,y) \rightarrow h(x)\) uniformly as \(y\rightarrow y_0\) for \(x\) in every compact subinterval \(J \subseteq I\) (This is required for differentiation as \(I\) is open)
Then:
\(f(x,y)\) converges locally uniformly for \(\forall x \in I\) to some \(g(x)\), as \(y \rightarrow y_0\)
\(g(x)\) is differentiable on \(I\) and
\[\frac{d}{dx} \left( \lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} f(x,y) \right) = g'(x) = h(x) = \lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x,y) \ .\]
Proof
Let (and fix) \(J \subset I\) compact, with \(x_1 \in J\), and length \(|J|\).
Step 1. 1. and 2. implies that \(f(\cdot, y)\) converges uniformly to some \(g(x)\) for \(x \in J\). By 2., for all \(\varepsilon > 0\), \(\exists V_{y_0, \delta}\) so that (Cauchy criterion)
for all \(y, \, y' \in V_{y_0}\). Applying Mean Value Theorem to \(\Phi(x) := f(x,y) - f(x,y')\), differentiable for \(x \in I\), there’s a \(\xi \in [x, x_1]\) so that
and
By 1., for \(\forall \varepsilon > 0\), there’s a \(V_{y_0,\delta_1}\) (\(\subseteq V_{y_0,\delta\), so that the uniform convergence of \(f_x(\cdot, y)\) still holds) so that \(\left| f(x_1, y) - f(x_1, y') \right| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2}\). Using (8.1), the second term is bounded by \(\frac{\varepsilon}{2(|J|+1)}|J| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2}\), and thus for all \(x \in J\)
i.e. \(f(x,y)\) converges uniformly for \(x \in J\) (to some \(g(x)\)) as \(y \rightarrow y_0\). todo Discuss how \(g(x)\) can be defined “interval-wise” through uniform convergence on all the \(J \subset I\).
Step 2. Differentiability of \(g\), through Moore-Osgood. As the derivative can be defined as the limit of the incremental ratio, the limit of a derivative and the derivative of a limit involve two limits on different variables. Thus, the possibility of interchanging limit and derivative operators can be proved trhough Moore-Osgood theorem.
Fix \(x \in I\). For \(t \ne 0\) so that \([x, x+t] \in I\) (or \([x+t,x] \in I\)), define the incremental ratios
Let’s check the assumptions of Moore-Osgood theorem for the limits \(\lim_{t \rightarrow 0}\), \(\lim_{y \rightarrow y_0}\) applied to \(Q\)
Assumption 1. of M-O theorem For every \(y \in V_{y_0}\), \(\lim_{t \rightarrow 0} Q(t,y)\) exists for all \(x \in J \subset I\), and it’s equal (by definition) to \(\lim_{t \rightarrow 0} Q(t,y) = f_{x}(x,y)\)
Assumption 2. of M-O theorem (\(Q(t,y) \rightarrow \varphi(t)\) uniformly as \(y \rightarrow y_0\) for \(t \in T_0\) punctured). For every fixed \(t\), \(Q(t,y) \rightarrow \varphi(y)\) as \(f(\cdot,y) \rightarrow g(\cdot)\) as \(y \rightarrow y_0\) (and this convergence holds for \(x\), \(x+t\)). In order to proof that the convergence is uniform in \(t\), let’s apply MVT to \(f(x+t,y) - f(x+t,y')\)
\[\left| Q(t,y) - Q(t,y') \right| = \left| \frac{f(x+t,y) - f(x,y) - f(x+t,y') + f(x,y')}{t} \right| = \left| f_x(\xi,y) - f_x(\xi,y') \right| \ ,\]for some \(\xi \in [x, x+t]\). By 2., for \(\forall \eta > 0\) \(\exists V_{y_0}\) (and Cauchy criterion) so that \(|f_x(\xi, y) - f_x(\xi,y')| < \eta\) for \(y, y' \in V_{y_0}\), independently of \(t\). Thus \(Q(t, \cdot)\) converges uniformly in \(t\) as \(y \rightarrow y_0\). Since \(Q(t,y) \rightarrow \varphi(t)\) pointwise for \(y \rightarrow y_0\), and \(Q(t,y)\) converges uniformly, thus \(Q(t,y) \rightarrow \varphi(t)\) uniformly in \(t\) for \(y \rightarrow y_0\).
As the two assumptions of Moore-Osgood theorem holds for \(Q(t,y)\), the theorem implies that
\(\lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} f_x(x,y)\) exists
\(\lim_{t \rightarrow 0} \varphi(t)\) exists
and
\[h(x) := \lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} f_x(x,y) = \lim_{t \rightarrow 0} \varphi(t) = \dfrac{d}{dx} g(x) = \dfrac{d}{dx} \left( \lim_{y \rightarrow y_0} f(x,y) \right) \ . \quad \blacksquare\]
Counter-example. \(f(x,y) = \frac{\sin(yx)}{\sqrt{y}}\), with \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) and \(y \rightarrow +\infty\).
The function \(f(x,y) \rightarrow 0\) uniformly as \(y \rightarrow +\infty\) (it converges pointwise to \(0\) and \(\sup |f(x,y) - 0| = \frac{1}{\sqrt{y}} \rightarrow 0\) as \(y \rightarrow + \infty\)).
The derivative \(\partial_x f(x,y) = \sqrt{y} \cos(yx)\) doesn’t converge to any function as \(y \rightarrow + \infty\), and thus it doesn’t converge uniformly neither. It meaningless even to try evaluating its derivative.
8.4. Extra#
Uniqueness of the theorem. If \(\lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} f(x) = L_1\), and \(\lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} f(x) = L_2\), then \(L_1 = L_2\).